PMP Question Bank

PMP Sample question bank – Based on PMBOK 5th Edition. These questions is just to give you an idea of type of questions which may be asked in PMP Certification Exams.

1. Which of the following is an advantage of centralized contracting?
a. Makes it easier to find vendors
b. Increases company expertise in contracting
c. Gives more loyalty to the project
d. Allows a contracts person to work on a single project


2.A project manager is trying to complete a software development project, but cannot get
enough attention for the project. Resources are focused on completing process-related work and the project manager has little authority to properly assign resources. What form of organization must the project manager be working in?
a. Functional
b. Matrix
c. Expediter
d. Coordinator

3. Who is ultimately responsible for quality management on the project?
a. Project engineer
b. Project manager
c. Quality manager
d. Team member

4. The highest point of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is:
a. Physiological satisfaction
b. Attainment of survival
c. Esteem
d. Self-actualization

5. A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the preliminary project scope statement and the project charter. The first thing the project manager must do is:
a. create a project scope statement.
b. confirm that all the stakeholders have contributed to the scope.
c. analyze project risk.
d. begin work on a project management plan.

6. In the context of estimation, a heuristic is best described as a::
a. control tool.
b. scheduling method.
c. planning tool.
d. rule of thumb.

7.Which technique can be used to determine the cause and degree of the difference between the baseline and actual performance?
a. root cause analysis
b. baseline bouncing
c. root cause calculations
d. variance analysis

8. Change requests can include
a. corrective actions
b. preventative actions
c.defect repairs
d.all of the above

9. If earned value EV = 350, actual cost AC = 400, planned value PV = 325, what is cost variance CV?
a. 350
b. -75
c. 400
d -50

10. A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the preliminary project scope statement and the project charter. The first thing the project manager must do is:
a. create a project scope statement.
b. confirm that all the stakeholders have contributed to the scope.
c. analyze project risk.
d. begin work on a project management plan.

11. You are taking over a project during the planning process group and discover that six individuals have signed the project charter. Which of the following should most concern you?
a. Who will be a member of the change control board
b. Spending more time on configuration management
c. Getting a single project sponsor
d. Determining the reporting structure

12. Without notice, the previous project manager is fired and Tim is the new project manager. Where should Tim look to find which scheduling method and scheduling tool is being used?
a.cost management plan
b.quality management plan
c.schedule management plan
d.communications management plan

13.The project manager is making sure that the product of the project has been completed according to the project management plan. What part of the project management process is he in?
a. Planning
b. Executing
c. Monitoring and controlling
d. Closing

14. Which of the following is a scheduling method?
a.critical path method
b.critical string method
c.critical chain method
d.both A and C are correct

15. The WBS and WBS dictionary are completed. The project team has begun working on identifying risks. The sponsor contacts the project manager, requesting that the responsibility assignment matrix be issued. The project has a budget of U.S. $loo,ooo and is taking place in three countries using 14 human resources. There is little risk expected for the project and the project manager has managed many projects similar to this one. What is the next thing to do?
a. Understand the experience of the sponsor on similar projects.
b. Create an activity list.
c. Make sure the project scope is defined.
d. Complete risk management and issue the responsibility assignment matrix.

16. Risk tolerances are determined in order to help:
a. the team rank the project risks.
b. the project manager estimate the project.
c. the team schedule the project.
d. management know how other managers will act on the project.

17. A project manager is employed by a construction company and is responsible for the furnishing of the completed building. One of the first things that the project manager for this project should do is to write a:
a. Work breakdown structure.
b. Budget baseline.
c. Project charter.
d. Project plan.

18. Your company has an emergency and needs contracted work done as soon as possible. Under these circumstances, which of the following would be the helpful to add to the contract?
a. A clear contract statement of work
b. Requirements as to which subcontractors can be used
c. Incentives
d. A force majeure clause

19.Which of the following is not a tool or technique for estimating activity duration?
a.analogous estimating
b.cost-basis estimating
c. parametric estimating
d. three-point estimating

20. The critical chain method is
a. the sequence of schedule activities that determines the duration of the project.
b.a schedule network analysis technique used to determine the amount of scheduling flexibility (the amount of float) on various network paths.
c.a schedule network analysis technique that modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources.
d. none of the above

21. The “halo effect” refers to the tendency to:
a. promote from within.
b. hire the best.
c. move people into project management because they are good in their technical fields.
d. move people into project management because they have had project management

22. Risks will be identified during which risk management process es?
a. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis and Identify Risks
b. Identify Risks and Control Risks
c. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis and Control Risks
d. Identify Risks

23. All of the following are characteristics of a project EXCEPT:
a. Temporary
b. Definite beginning and end
c. Interrelated activities
d. Repeats itself every month

24. A team is using a fishbone diagram to help determine what quality standards will be used on the project. What part of the quality management process are they in?
a. Perform quality control
b. Perform quality assurance
c. Plan Quality Management
d. Variable analysis

25. A network diagram is one way to present the
a.project budget
b.project plan
c. project schedule
d.all of the above

26. The equivalent of cost reimbursable contracts is frequently termed:
a. Back charge contracts.
b. Fixed price contracts.
c. Progress payment contracts.
d. Cost plus contracts.

27.A buyer extends a formal invitation containing a scope of work. The invitation seeks a response describing the methodology and results that will be provided to the buyer. This is called:
a. Invitation to bid.
b. Request for information.
c. Request for proposal.
d. Request for bid.

28. A project manager must have some work done by an outside contractor. This work has a great deal of risk associated with it, and it has become very difficult to find a contractor willing to take on the job. Which of the following types of contract would offer the greatest incentive to the contractor?
a. Cost plus percentage of cost as an award fee
b. Cost plus fixed fee
c. Cost plus incentive fee
d. Firm fixed price

29. The schedule management plan might establish the
a.scheduling methodology
b.variance thresholds for monitoring schedule performance
c.both A and B
d.neither A nor B

30 Purchasing insurance is considered an example of risk:
a. mitigation.
b. transfer.
c. acceptance.
d. avoidance.

31. A decision to fast track a project schedule could affect
a.project risks
b.project budget
c.project cost
d.all of the above

32. A cost performance index CPI of 0.89 means:
a. at this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned.
b. when the project is completed we will have spent 89 percent more than planned.
c. the project is only progressing at 89 percent of that planned.
d. the project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested

33. In a matrix organization, which of the following is true??
a. The project manager is responsible for employee skills improvement.
b. The functional manager is responsible for employee skills improvement.
c. The project manager is responsible for the employee.s annual appraisal.
d. The employee is responsible for his or her own skills improvement.

34. Your program manager has come to you, the project manager, for help with a bid for her
newest project. You want to protect your company from financial risk. You have limited scope definition. What is the BEST type of contract to choose?
a. Fixed price FP
b. Cost plus percent of cost CPPC
c. Time and material T&M
d. Cost plus fixed fee CPFF

35. The project management process groups are:
a. Initiating, planning, expediting, and control.
b. Plan, organize, develop, and control.
c. Plan, do, observe, commit.
d. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring &controlling, and closing.

36.With Earned Value Management (EVM),
a. performance is measured by determining the budgeted cost of work performed and comparing it to the actual cost of work performed.
b. performance is measured by determining the budgeted cost of work performed and comparing it to the actual amount of work completed.
c.performance is measured by determining the budgeted cost of work performed and comparing it to estimated project schedule
d.performance is measured by determining the actual cost of work performed and comparing it to the actual project schedule

37.In which project management process group is the detailed project budget created?
a. Initiating
b. Before the project management process
c. Planning
d. Executing

38. Which of the following conflict resolution techniques will generate the MOST lasting solution?
a. Forcing
b. Smoothing
c. Compromise
d. Problem solving

39. Breaking the major deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to provide better control is called:
a. Scope planning.
b. Decomposition.
c. Scope base lining.
d. Bill of Materials BOM.

40. Which of the following is NOT an input to the initiating process group?
a. Company processes
b. The company culture
c. Historical WBSs
d. Project scope statement

41. Earned Value (EV) is also referred to as
a.the expected net worth (ENW).
b.the estimate to complete (ETC)
c.the expected monetary value (EMV)
d.the budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP)

42. Workarounds are determined during which risk management process?
a. Identify Risks
b. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
c. Plan Risk Responses
d. Control Risks

43. A person who is involved in or may be affected by the activities or anyone who has something to gain or lose by the activity of the project is called a:
a. Team member.
b. Customer.
c. Stakeholder.
d. Supporter.

44. The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is a measure of schedule efficiency on a project. Which of following formulas calculate the SPI?
a. Earned Value (EV) minus Planned Value (PV)
b. Earned Value (EV) divided by Planned Value (PV)
c.Planned Value (PV) minus the Earned Value (EV)
d.none of the above

45. Quality is:
a. meeting and exceeding the customer’s expectations.
b. adding extras to make the customer happy.
c. the degree to which the inherent characteristics fulfill requirements.
d. conformance to management’s objectives.

46. A schedule performance index SPI of 0.76 means:
a. you are over budget.
b. you are ahead of schedule.
c. you are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned.
d. you are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned.

47.Contract closure is different from administrative closure in that contract closure:
a. occurs before administrative closure.
b. is the only one to involve the customer.
c. includes the return ofproperty.
d. may be done more than once for each contract.

48. During the full life cycle of the project, a plot of the project.s expected expenditures will usually follow a characteristic ..S.. shape. This indicates that:
a. There is a cyclic nature to all projects.
b. Problems will always occur in the execution phase.
c. There are high expenditures during closeout.
d. The bulk of the project budget will be spent in the execution phase.

49. An output of administrative closure is the creation of:
a. project archives.
b. a project charter.
c. a project management plan.
d. a risk analysis plan.

50. With respect to creating a WBS, the term “decomposition” refers to
a.dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts.
b.removing all work packages from the WBS.
c.through a stakeholder approval process, officially eliminating the WBS from the project management plan.
d.removing those work packages from the WBS that take less than one business day to complete.

51. Every activity and milestone except the first and last should be connected to at least one _________ with a finish-to-start or start-to-start logical relationship and at least one ________ with a finish-to-start or finish-to-finish logical relationship.
a.predecessor, successor
b. minor activity, major activity
c.module, module
d. None of the above.

52. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a new product or service is called a:
a. New product development.
b. Project.
c. Program.
d. Enterprise.

53. An example of scope validation is:
a. Reviewing the performance of an installed software module.
b. Managing changes to the project schedule.
c. Decomposing the WBS to a work package level.
d. Performing a benefit-cost analysis to determine if we should proceed.

54. What conflict resolution technique is a project manager using when he says, “I cannot deal with this issue now!”
a. Problem solving
b. Forcing
c. Withdrawal
d. Compromising

55. Approved Change Requests are an input to:
a. Control Scope and Validate Scope.
b. Direct and Manage Project Work.
c. develop project management plan and develop project charter.
d. Develop Project Management Plan and Develop Schedule.

56. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
a. is a technique used when performing quality assurance.
b. is a tool for projecting estimated costs.
c. is a technique used for constructing a schedule model.
d. is a technique used for constructing a scope statement.

57. A group of related projects that are managed in a coordinated way that usually include an element of ongoing activity is called a:
a. Major project.
b. Project office.
c. Program.
d. Group of projects.

58. To control the schedule, a project manager is reanalyzing the project to predict project
duration. She does this by analyzing the sequence of activities with the least amount of scheduling flexibility. What technique is she using?
a. Critical path method
b. Flowchart
c. Precedence diagramming
d. Work breakdown structure

59. The precedence diagramming method (PDM) includes four types of dependencies or logical relationships. Which answer below is not one of them?
a finish-to-start (FS)
b. finish-to-finish(FF)
c.start-to-stop (SS)
d.start-to-finish (SF)

60. A project manager has assembled the project team, identified 56 risks on the project,
determined what would trigger the risks, rated them on a risk rating matrix, tested their
assumptions and assessed the quality of the data used. The team is continuing to move through the risk management process. What has the project manager forgotten to do?
a. Simulation
b. Risk mitigation
c. Overall risk ranking for the project
d. Involving of other stakeholders

61. Configuration management plan is:
a. Used to ensure that the description of the project product is correct and complete.
b. The creation of the work breakdown structure.
c. The set of procedures developed to control changes.
d. A mechanism to track budget and schedule variances.

62. A rough order of magnitude estimate is made during which project management process
a. Project planning
b. Project closing
c. Project executing
d. Project initiating

63.The work defined at the lowest level of the breakdown structure to estimate as well as manage time and cost is called the:
a. Activity.
b. Task.
c. Work package.
d. Cost account.

64. Which of the following is an example of a finish-to-start logical relationship?
a. Writing (predecessor) is required to finish before proofreading (successor) can finish.
b. Final software testing (successor) can not start until the coding (predecessor) is finished.
c. neither of the above
d. both of the above

65. All of the following are examples of the cost of nonconformance EXCEPT?
a. Rework
b. Quality training
c. Scrap
d. Warranty costs

66. What type of contract do you not want to use if you do not have enough labor to audit invoices?
a. Cost plus fixed fee CPFF
b. Time & material T&M
c. Fixed price FP
d. Fixed price incentive fee FPIF

67. Start-to-finish (SF) is a logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot
a. start until a predecessor activity has finished.
b. finish until a predecessor activity has finished.
c. start until a predecessor activity has started.
d. finish until a predecessor activity has started.

68. In PDM, _____________ is the most commonly used type of precedence relationship.
a. finish-to-finish
b. finish-to-start
c. start-to-start

69. This fishbone diagram illustrates cause and effect. Another name for this diagram is the
a.PERT Chart.
B.Gantt chart.
c. Monte Carlo diagram.
d. Ishikawa diagram.

70. A project manager has just been assigned to a project. The document that recognizes the existence of the project is called:
a. The statement of work.
b. The project assignment.
c. The project charter.
d. The product description.

71. A risk is a bad event that will adversely impact the project. This statement is:

a. Always true
b. Always false
c. Sometimes true
d. None of the above

72. Your construction project was damaged by an earthquake. Your contractor says that he cannot fulfil the terms of the contract due to a specific clause you both had signed in the contract. He is referring to the:
a. Force majeure clause
b. Fixed price clause
c. Contract obligation terms
d. None of the above

73. Your vendor has confirmed in writing that he will not be able to provide the products contracted to him, in the time mentioned in the contract. You can terminate the contract and sue for damages. This is a type of:
a. Minor breach
b. Anticipatory breach
c. Material breach
d. Fundamental breach

74. If a stakeholder has any questions about project deliverables, as the PM, you should direct him to the:
a. WBS
b. Project plan
c. Preliminary Scope statement
d. None of the above

75. The four strategies used to deal with positive threats are:
a. Exploit, share, enhance, accept
b. Exploit, share, enhance, adjust
c. Exploit, simulate, enhance, accept
d. Exploit, share, prototype, accept

76 A project you are managing is about to be completed. But there is a minor defect in the work produced by the contractor. You should:
a. Neglect the defect if it is trivial
b. Ask the contractor to fix according to SOW
c. Submit a change request
d. None of the above

77. As a PM, you have identified some low priority risks. You should:
a. Neglect them as they will mostly not occur
b. Add them to a watch list and add to the risk register
c. Plan detailed response plans
d. None of the above

78. One of your team members’ A’s father was sick when you were in the planning stage of your project. A had informed you that he might have to leave to visit his father if the situation arose. You had planned for this and spoke to the functional manager of your group to provide a back-up resource, B to be used if necessary.
Now, A has left to see his father and B is filling in for him. But B is taking more than expected time to get up to speed and this impacts project cost and schedule.
This is an example of a:
a. Residual risk
b. Secondary risk
c. Contingency plan
d. None of the above

79. To motivate your team, you decided to reward a team member who performed well. This hurt cohesion in the team. You should:
a. Reset award criteria
b. Modify reward strategy to be win-win for the team
c. Award only two people
d. Declare that there will be no rewards going forward

80. Your brother can influence bids in the vendor company that has been contracted for your project. You should:
a. Disclose the bid price that is most likely to make him win
b. Reject other vendors and award him the contract
c. Refrain from the decision-making process and make a full disclosure to stakeholders and wait for their decision before you proceed
d. Pretend during meetings that you don’t know your brother

81. Your project uses a vendor who has completed 50% of the contracted work. You are unsure of how much to pay the vendor. You should refer to the:
a. Request for proposal
b. Contract
c. Response to bid
d. Statement of work

82. When estimating time for activities, a PM should:
a. Use random guessing and estimate for all activities as there will be changes anyways
b. Involve people who will be doing the work to get estimates
c. Estimate for what the cost will allow and not include buffers
d. None of the above

83. When there are people from different countries and cultures in a team, the PM should:
a. Neglect the cultural differences
b. Deal with everyone with an iron hand
c. Recognize that there are cultural differences
d. Mentor each person

84. If your business sponsor has an important but minor change to the scope, and he requests that you make the change without having to process a change request:
a. Accomodate the change
b. Refuse to make the change
c. Sneak the change in when no one is looking
d. Request the client that the change management process has to be followed

85. If a stakeholder directly asks a team member to make changes and the team member accomodates it:
a. Admonish the team member during the team meeting so that other team members are also aware
b. Inform the stakeholder that he should not talk to your team member
c. Talk to the stakeholder and team member in private, and emphasise gently that the Integrated Change Control process should be followed
d. Pretend to not know about the change and let it happen

86. When your client is ready to accept the product your project has produced, you should:
a. Refer to the quality plan to see if the product meets specifications
b. Refer to project management plan
c. Obtain client sign off and follow administrative closure process
d. Let go off the project resources and assign them to other projects

87. Appreciating a team member’s good work in front of the team results in:
a. Jealousy among other team members and should be avoided
b. Encouragement for the team member and motivation for other team members
c. Shouldn’t be done as it shows preference
d. None of the above

88. You just found out that the company that you were planning to use in your project is known for being late in delivering their products that can lead to losses to the project. You decide to go with a different company to ______ the risk.
a. Mitigate
b. Reject
c. Transfer
d. Avoid

89. You are the project manager of a project that involves sensitive information. You are inviting bids from vendors for some tasks on this project. Since the winning vendor will have access to the sensitive information, you should:
a. Decide to drop the vendor and instead do the tasks using an internal team
b. Swear the vendor to secrecy
c. Ask the vendor to sign a non-disclosure agreement
d. Threaten to take the vendor to court

90. A project is behind schedule. Two senior resources are added to help speeden work. The result is:
a. Project will be completed on time
b. Project cost will not increase
c. Project may not be completed on time due to increased number of communication channels
d. None of the above

91. Project scope statement is the output of:
a. Scope planning
b. Scope definition
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

92. Requested changes to scope and recommended corrective action belong to which process:
a. Scope verification
b. Scope definition
c. Scope control
d. All of the above

93. As the project manager of an important project, you learnt many helpful tools and tips. What should you do?
a. Keep them to yourself
b. Archive your learning in the project folder and share with other PMs
c. Sign a non-disclosure agreement
d. None of the above

94. Scope planning takes place:
a. After requirements are gathered
b. Early in the project
c. After scope is finalized
d. None of the above

95. Project charter is
a. An output of Scope planning
b. Input to scope planning
c. Created after preliminary project scope statement
d. All of the above

96. An example of organizational process asset is:
a. Company policy document
b. Organizational culture
c. Organization structure
d. Organization type

97. Qualitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Risk Management:
a. Planning
b. Executing
c. Monitoring
d. Controlling

98. Quantitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Risk Management:
a. Planning
b. Executing
c. Monitoring
d. Controlling

99. Risk register is an output of:
a. Risk identification
b. Qualitative risk analysis
c. Quantitative risk analysis
d. Risk response planning

100. Risk register update is a primary output of:
a. Quantitative risk analysis
b. Qualiitative risk analysis
c. Risk monitoring and control
d. All of the above

101. Risk monitoring and control produces the following outputs:
a. Risk register updates
b. Risk management plan
c. Risk register
d. All of the above

102. The triple constraints in project management are:
a. Scope, Time, cost
b. Time, scope, performance
c. Scope, Time, plan
d. Scope, Time, quality

103. Schedule development produces the following output:
a. Project schedule
b. WBS
c. Activity time
d. Project plan

104. Critical path is:
a. The time it takes to finish the project completing only the critical activities
b. Difference between end time and start time of project
c. The longest time it takes to complete all project activities
d. The shortest time it takes to complete all project activities

105. Risk monitoring and control produces the following outputs:
a. Risk register updates
b. Recommended corrective actions
c. Recommended preventive actions
d. All of the above

106. When there are multiple critical paths in a project:
a. The risk is less as it is divided between the paths
b. The risk is more as the risk of delay is more
c. Risk depends on how the critical path is calculated
d. There is no risk as the paths cancel it out

107.Dummy activities are used in:
a. Activity on arrow diagram
b. Activity decomposition
c. Activity list
d. Activity duration estimates

108. Crashing:
a. Is a schedule compression technique
b. Increases cost
c. Is achieved by adding resources
d. All of the above

109. Fast tracking:
a. Is a schedule compression technique
b. Does sequential activities in parallel
c. Increases risk of rework
d. All of the above

110. Ishikawa diagrams are also called:
a. Fishbone diagrams
b. Causal diagrams
c. Stick diagrams
d. Bone diagrams

111.Some managers believe that people do not work willingly and must be watched and managed continuosly. They are of type:
a. Theory X
b. Theory Y
c. Theory XY
d. Theory V

112. Software Project A took 5 months to complete. Project B, very similar to Project A will probably take about 5 months to complete. This expert judgement technique is:
a. Analogous estimating
b. Critical path
c. Expert estimation
d. Compression

113. When an individual’s lower level needs are met, the next level’s needs are his motivation. This forms the basis of:
a. Theory Y
b. Maslow’s hierarchy
c. Theory X
d. None of the above

114. Noise is:
a. Any interference in sending or comprehending a message
b. False information
c. Introduced in electronic signals
d. None of the above

115. A project manager manages a team of 5. The number of communication channels is:
a. 15
b. 10
c. 5
d. None of the above

116 Email communication is:
a. Formal style, written
b. Informal style, written
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b

117. A technique used to identify root causes of issues is:
a. Fish bone diagram
b. Quality check
c. Issue list
d. Defect review

118. A bar graph that shows resource assignments over time is:
a. Resource leveling
b. Resource histogram
c. Resource chart
d. Gantt chart

119. An activity on the critical path has:
a. Non-zero float
b. Negative free float
c. Zero free float
d. None of the above

120. Locating all team members in the same location is called:
a. War room
b. Collocation
c. Teleconferencing
d. Telecommuting

121. If CPI=1.3, SPI=.8, what’s the status of the project?
a. Over budget and behind schedule
b. Under budget and behind schedule
c. Under budget and ahead of schedule
d. Over budget and ahead of schedule

122. ‘Plan risk responses’ process involves:
a. Planning to decrease threats to the project
b. Planning to benefit from possible opportunities
c. Both of the above
d. Only A

123. Earned value=100, Planned value=110, the schedule performance index is:
a. 1.1
b. 0.91
c. -10
d. 10

124. Earned value=100, Actual cost=120, the cost performance index is:
a. 0.01
b. 20
c. 0.833
d. -20

125. ‘Estimate to Completion’ can be calculated as:
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b

126. The four stages in team development are:
a. Forming, storming, norming, performing
b. Forming, storming, norming, reforming
c. Forming, norming, reforming, performing
d. Planning, forming, storming, performing

127. Theory Y assumes employees:
a. Are self-motivated
b. Have to be micro-managed
c. Work only for money
d. Are not ambitious

128. A technique used in Expert Judgement to determine probability of risk is:
a. Interviews with experts
b. Risk ranking
c. Risk register updates
d. Risk response plan

129 Monte Carlo simulation is a technique used to perform:
a. Qualitative risk analysis
b. Quantitative risk analysis
c. Decision tree analysis
d. Risk response

130. Project Scope management plan is an output of:
a. Scope planning
b. Scope definition
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

131. Inputs to Perform Quantitative Risk analysis process are:
a. Risk register
b. Risk management plan
c. Cost management plan
d. All of the above

132. Tools/techniques to perform quantitative risk analysis are:
a. Expert judgement
b. Decision tree analysis
c. Modeling
d. All of the above

133. Low-priority risks should be:
a. Added to a watch list and the risk register updated
b. Removed from the watch list
c. Removed from the risk register
d. Informed to the customer

134. Inputs to Perform Quantitative Risk analysis process are:
a. Organizational process assets
b. Schedule management plan
c. Cost management plan
d. All of the above

135. Positive risks are also called:
a. Good risks
b. Opportunities
c. Advantages
d. Project pluss

136. Scope verification and Scope control belong to:
a. Planning process group
b. Initiating proces group
c. Executing process group
d. Monitoring and Control process group

137. In a fixed price contract, the risk:
a. lies more with the vendor
b. lies more with the buyer
c. is the same for vendor and buyer
d. Can’t say

138. In a time-materials contract, the risk:
a. lies more with the vendor
b. lies more with the buyer
c. is the same for vendor and buyer
d. Can’t say

139. Purchasing insurance is a form of ______ risk:
a. Avoiding
b. Transferring
c. Mitigating
d. Working around

140. The only output of the Identify Risks process is:
a. Risk analysis
b. Risk register
c. Risk monitor
d. Risk response plan

141. The four strategies used to deal with negative threats are:
a. Avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept
b. Avoid, transfer, mitigate, reject
c. Accept, transfer, mitigate, reject
d. Accept, analyze, avoid, mitigate

142. Examine the statement-”A detailed risk response plan should be prepared no matter how huge or trivial the risk is, irrespective of whether the effort is cost-effective or not, as this is the process.” This statement is:
a. Always true
b. Always false
c. Sometimes true
d. Sometimes false

143. How to define, monitor and control risks in a project is documented in:
a. Expert judgement interview results
b. Risk register
c. Risk management plan
d. Workshops

144. Tools/techniques used in Plan Procurements process are:
a. Make or buy analysis
b. Expert judgement
c. Contract types
d. All of the above

145. Unclear scope definition in a project using Fixed price contract can lead to losses for:
a. the buyer
b. the vendor
c. both buyer and vendor
d. Neither as these are sunk costs

146. Request for proposal, Request for Information, Invitation for bid are broadly called:
a. Procurement documents
b. Vendor documents
c. Bidding documents
d. Contract documents

147. Create WBS belongs to:
a. Initiating
b. Executing
c. Closing
d. None of the above

148. Closing a Project involves:
a. Updating organization process assets
b. Closing contract
c. Creating documentation, archives, and lessons learned
d. All of the above

149. Administrative closure is an output of:
a. Project Administration process
b. Close Project process
c. Monitor project process
d. Risk management process

150. ‘Gold plating’ is
a. Beating customer expectations
b. Producing excellent deliverables
c. Setting higher than possible expectations that introduce risk to the project
d. All of the above

151. CPPC and fixed-price contracts are used in:
a. PO with standard item
b. PO with variable item
c. Request for proposal
d. Price-free contracts

152. WBS is created in:
a. Scope management process
b. Risk management process
c. Planning process
d. Monitor and control process

153. A tool/rechnique used in the Develop Human Resource plan process is:
a. Political factors
b. Organization chart
c. Personnel policies
d. Interpersonal factors

154. RBS stands for:
a. Resource breakdown structure
b. Risk breakdown structure
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b

155. Which of the following is true?
a. RACI (Responsible-Accountable-Consult-Inform) is a type of RAM (Responsibility Assignment matrix)
b. RAM shows the resources’ responsibilities on the project
c. RAM and RACI are matrix-based charts
d. All of the above

156. ‘Scope’ of project is:
a. Any work committed to orally with customer
b. Only work that has to be completed to successfully finish project
c. Any work that customer requires to be completed
d. Only work that can be completed within project duration

157. Tools for Plan Quality are:
a. Cost-benefit analysis
b. Control charts
c. Benchmarking
d. All of the above

158. Crosby’s cost of quality theory of ‘zero defects’ is based on:
a. Prevention
b. Correction
c. Conformance
d. Fitness for use

159. Juran’s fitness for use theory of cost of quality can be summarized as:
a. Continuous improvement
b. Making a product that meets or exceeds customer expectations
c. Making a product that is easy to use
d. Making a product with zero defects

160. ‘Budget at Completion’ is also called:
a. Actual cost
b. Budgeted cost of work performed
c. Earned value
d. Planned value for the project

161. Which of the following are examples of cost reimbursable contracts:
a. Cost plus incentive fee
b. Cost plus fixed fee
c. Cost plus fee
d. All of the above

162. A critical activity is something that:
a. Is crucial for the project to be completed successfully
b. Needs to be signed of by the stakeholder
c. An activity on the critical path in the project schedule
d. An activity that cannot be substituted by a different activity

163. A dummy activity has:
a. Infinite duration
b. Zero duration
c. No importance
d. All of the above

164. Residual risk is a risk:
a. Found in reserve analysis
b. That remains after all risk responses have been implemented
c. That will be eliminated after applying the appropriate risk response
d. None of the above

165. Scope planning and Scope definition belong to:
a. Planning process group
b. Initiating process group
c. Executing process group
d. Monitoring and Control process group


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